Is there a simple argument to explain why tree level amplitudes must factorize on their pole into products of lower point tree level amplitudes, not by ispection of Feynman diagrams but as a conseguence of unitarity?
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1 asked Oct 23, 2019 at 11:02
- $\begingroup$Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/585064/2451$\endgroup$– Qmechanic♦CommentedJun 26, 2022 at 14:22
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