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I want to find the pdf of the square of an exponential distribution. Let $X \sim \exp(\lambda)$ and $Y=X^2$. I want $f_Y(y)$.

I start from the $\operatorname{CDF}$ of $Y$: $$ P(Y\leq y)=P(X^2\leq y) \\ =P(X\leq y/X) \\ =\int_0^\infty\left( \int_0^{y/X} \lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx \right)\lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx\\ = \int_0^\infty \left(e^{\lambda y / x} - 1 \right) e^{-\lambda y / x} \lambda e^{\lambda x} dx$$

which after a bit of solving gives me: $$= \lambda \int_0^\infty e^{\lambda x}-e^{\lambda x - \frac{\lambda y}{x}} dx $$

At this point the calculus starts to get a bit tricky, and this is where I get lost.

Am I on the right track and I just need to muscle through the calculation, or is there an easier way to approach this?

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  • $\begingroup$Hint: $P(X^2 \leq y) = P(-\sqrt{y} \leq X \leq \sqrt{y})$.$\endgroup$
    – Captuna
    Commentedyesterday
  • $\begingroup$@Captuna I think you're missing $\sqrt{y}$ on either side, but great hint$\endgroup$
    – Pavan C.
    Commentedyesterday
  • $\begingroup$@Pavan C. oh yes thank u$\endgroup$
    – Captuna
    Commentedyesterday
  • $\begingroup$@user1617627 You correctly understood that you needed to convert $P(Y \leq y)$ to $P(X \leq \text{something}$ but your problem is you have an $X$ on the right hand side of the equals sign--that's messing up your probability (having random things on both sides is often harder than having them all on one side). You needed to solve for $x$ by looking at the $\pm \sqrt{}$ on both sides$\endgroup$
    – Pavan C.
    Commentedyesterday
  • $\begingroup$This is very helpful, thank you! So the setup would be $P(X^2\leq y)=2 * P(X\leq \sqrt{y})=2\int_0^{\sqrt{y}} \lambda e^{-\lambda x}dx$$\endgroup$Commentedyesterday

1 Answer 1

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The step $$ P(X\leq y/X) =\int_0^\infty\left( \int_0^{y/X} \lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx \right)\lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx$$ is not valid for several reasons:

  • there are two integrals depending on $x$
  • there is a capital $X$ while the left hand side is a number.

Instead, use $P(X^2\leqslant y)=\mathbb P(X\leqslant\sqrt{y})$ for $y\geqslant 0$, which is valid since $X$ is positive.

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  • $\begingroup$Thanks! One question - wouldn't $P(X^2\leq y)=2P(X\leq \sqrt{y})$ as in @pavac-c 's comment above?$\endgroup$Commentedyesterday
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    $\begingroup$No, because $\mathbb P(-\sqrt{y}\leqslant X\leqslant 0)=0$.$\endgroup$Commentedyesterday
  • $\begingroup$Oh right, that makes sense.$\endgroup$Commentedyesterday

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