I was introduced to a silly way to derive the 'de broglie formulae':
Both $\left(\frac{p}{k}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{E}{\omega}\right)$ have the same dimension, and it has to be $\left(\frac{M \cdot L^2}{T}\right)$.
Both $\left(\frac{p}{k}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{E}{\omega}\right)$ have to be equal to some constants whose physical dimension is $\left(\frac{M \cdot L^2}{T}\right)$.
Without further investigation, these constants will be the same, and they are the reduced planck constant.
The problems are the following:
Why these constants has to be the same for both $\left(\frac{p}{k}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{E}{\omega}\right)$?
With those assumptions, it is clear that there is a linear correlation between $\left(p, \, k\right)$ and $\left(E, \, \omega\right)$.
How that type of correlation enter in this derivation?
DISCLAIMER: i already know all the physic behind the 'de broglie hypothesis' as well as more sophisticate ways to derive the formulae above. I just want to know in which way that physics enter into a derivation based ONLY on dimensional analysis.