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This question already has an answer here:

If it be your will / that I speak no more / and my voice be still / as it was before.

I would like to ask why there is used "be" insted of "is" in the first verse of Leonard Cohen's song. Is it just due to rhythm or does it have something to do with grammar?

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marked as duplicate by AlanCarmack, Nathan Tuggy, Brian Tompsett - 汤莱恩, probablyme, shin16 hours ago

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

2  
It is the subjunctive "be". – CowperKettleyesterday
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The author uses the base form of the verb "be" because it is a subjunctive construction.

The subjunctive in English is used to form sentences that do not describe known objective facts. These include statements about one's state of mind, such as opinion, belief, purpose, intention, or desire. It contrasts with the indicative mood, which is used for statements of fact, such as He speaks English.

Note that the author uses the "mandative subjunctive" in

and my voice be still

Here's an explanation, again from Wikipedia:

The main use of the English present subjunctive, called the mandative or jussive subjunctive,[2] occurs in that clauses (declarative content clauses; the word that is sometimes omitted in informal and conversational usage) expressing a circumstance which is desired, demanded, recommended, necessary, or similar.

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5  
I'd noted that the use of the present subjunctive in conditional statements is (in most dialects) not common outside of poetical uses. It's more common historically. – equesyesterday
    
@eques - if it be your will, you might post an add-on answer, this is quite welcome here. An answer should not necessarily cover the whole issue. I sometimes post word usage examples. – CowperKettleyesterday

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